The New English Bible: ” The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy child to be born will be called Son of God.”
King James Version: …”The Holy Ghost will come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.” In each text the angel Gabriel is the person speaking.
Again, in John 4-14, only Jesus and the woman were present. That were alone. Does it make sense for Jesus to use the pronoun “him”…. when speaking to her?
The New English Bible: “Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks the water that I shall give him will never suffer thirst anymore.”
New American Bible: “Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again. But whoever drinks the water I give him will never be thirsty…”
Jerusalem Bible: “Whoever drinks this water will get thirsty again; but anyone who drinks the water that I shall give will never be thirsty again.”
What is needed is a pronoun that signifies a person, perhaps a pronoun form from a language other than English, without indicating or implying sex…. e.g., as the pronoun, them, I…. a pronoun which is indeterminate as to sex or which does not indicate sex at all as I have been told is the case in the Hebrew language….
Also, are not the liturgy and the homilies sexist? Listen to a sermon some time and see how often the words “he” and “him” are used
YHWH Says Page 13